Even if time travel was practical or theoretically possible, how could it be feasible? Time exists only through experience of the world, and each human being has a different (even if slightly different) interpretation of the world. If one person went "backwards" in time and changed something, I fail to comprehend how the change could have an effect on another person who continually remains in the present. In short, I see time travel as an "all or nothing" ordeal (can't be done with one, but maybe all). Even with "all" people and/or "things" time travelling, it seems nearly impossible (at our current level of understanding and technology, anyway).
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6 comments:
time travel would be feasible because the world is objective. our perceptions are not, but the world itself is. follow?
its like this: im looking at a car, and i see a red mustang. i experience a certain response (probly: blagh chick mobile...not particularly fond of most mustangs). someone else looks at the car, and sees a red mustang, but they see something more, and their experience is more like "shweet mang...perfect vehicle" but either way, the car is neither a "chick mobile" nor the "perfect vehicle." it has its own nature outside of how we perceive it...one could argue that time doesnt have this objective nature. i would reply, it does: its objective reality is that it doesn't exist... (!) at the speed of light, supposedly the only constant in the created universe, time is zero. zero is a place holder for 'nothing.' time is 'nothing.' so then you would change the objective course of events, ("x" did occur, even if not everyone knows about it, and occured this way, even if not everyone experience it exactly that way), and everyone would experience the same thing differently. but time is, theoretically, not much of a barrier. how can it be? it doesnt exist.
If our perceptions are not objective but the world is, how would time travel be feasible? Assuming the world is objective, it is not objective to each individual (as you said with the perceptions = subjective). Therefore, lets assume Bobby travels into the past and changes an event, any event, which has an effect on the future (but this future has already taken place in Bobby's world). Does the "future" (or past for Bobby) change only for him or the entirety of the world in an objective sense? Do their perceptions suddenly change or mindsets become altered based on the "true" past or "Bobby's altered" past?
That is, unless time travel was able to exist but only in regards to time travel into the future. This would require someone or something traveling greater than the speed of light, which has yet to be accomplished and the prospects for accomplishment seem dim at this point. Even if this was true, though, would the individual who travels into the future have perceptions of the "objective time" which he passes by?
Also you say that time isn't much of a barrier since it doesn't exist. Can you clarify, then, what the barrier is in regards to time travel? I would like to propose that nothingness could possibly be the greatest barrier in that we have not the technology to harness this nothingness. So even if time has this objective nature of nothingness, how would we travel through, back, or into time?
I say time travel isn't possible for the same reason (i think) you said that it is possible - the differing, subjective perspectives of individuals. If time isn't the barrier, what is the barrier? The gap between the objective world and the subjective individual? I could also say that even if an object or event or "the world" has its own objective nature, we are imposing our own subjective wills upon the objective in "time travel" thus no longer rendering the objective truly objective but an altered construct of the subject.
Sorry Rob for jumping around so much since its pretty late and I should be doing homework. Let me know if you want/need any clarifications.
"Does the "future" (or past for Bobby) change only for him or the entirety of the world in an objective sense? Do their perceptions suddenly change or mindsets become altered based on the "true" past or "Bobby's altered" past? "
ditto on your second post so im just gonna deal with this right now and mybe get to the rest tomorrow or something. but as far as this goes, i would say that whatever bobby changes changes in that objective reality. i mean, it happened in time. lol for lack of a better reference its like in harry potter 3 where hermione throws the stone through the window at the end. that happened the first time even though she hadn't done it yet, you know what I'm saying? blagh im too tired for this ask me in school tomorrow
Unfortunately, while I have read Harry Potter 3, I fail to recall such an event (was years ago). And my issues lies in that it didn't happen in the "true", "objective" time. If time is truly objective and nothingness, shouldn't it be unalterable?
Sorry for repeating myself but (in order to propose a question), "I could also say that even if an object or event or "the world" has its own objective nature, we are imposing our own subjective wills upon the objective in "time travel" thus no longer rendering the objective truly objective but an altered construct of the subject" is what I'm trying to get at. That is, can something still remain objective if it is able to be manipulated by a single subject?
Dude, changing something in the past would totally affect the present. What if time travel were possible and I landed in 1939. If I stopped World War II from happening then no one would speak of it in the present since it never happened. And if I were to go back in time, and no one went with me, everyone else would still appear in the past because it's basically a little video reenacting what happened in whatever year I went back. Except it's not exactly a video because I can impact people when I'm there in the past. Anyways, I dont' know if you understood that but my point is that you're wrong. Also, just because something seems impossible doesn't mean it's not true.
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